On 23/08/2009 17:15, David Paleino wrote: > On Sun, 23 Aug 2009 16:58:36 +0100, Craig Wallace wrote: > > >> On 23/08/2009 15:45, David Paleino wrote: >> >>> Read my reply to Pieren: how close you put the stop sign to the effective >>> junction is pretty arbitrary, that's why I'm trying to abandon my >>> "established" way of mapping those. >>> >> Why not place the stop sign node where the stop line / stop sign is >> physically located? >> Nothing arbitrary about that. You can measure the distance from the stop >> line to the centre of the junction of you want. >> > You'd still need some kind of relationship for that to be effective (i.e. to > relate the highway=stop to the junction node) -- and AFAICT typical consumer > GPS units aren't that precise. > Why is it necessary to relate the highway=stop to the junction node? Isn't it obvious that if a highway=stop is within a few metres of a junction, then its part of the same junction. It shouldn't affect routing software etc anyway.
And it doesn't have to be very precise. Its easy to estimate the width of a road, and how far away from the road edge the stop line is. (and on a related note, is there any of mapping advanced stop lines (for cyclists etc)?) _______________________________________________ talk mailing list [email protected] http://lists.openstreetmap.org/listinfo/talk
