I don't want to sound overly simplistic, but as a copyright holder, I believe if ANY amount of my (or "our" in the sense of copyright shared among many individuals, as are the rights in OSM's ODbL) data-under-license are included in a derivative work, and I mean ANY non-zero amount, "attribution" (as ODbL defines attribution) is legally required.
I believe ODbL agrees with this (there is no mention of "percentages" there), though I am not an attorney. Why is this so difficult? "Any non-zero amount of OSM data yields a legal requirement for proper attribution." Do I miss something? SteveA <remainder redacted for brevity> _______________________________________________ talk mailing list [email protected] https://lists.openstreetmap.org/listinfo/talk
