[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
DAVEH: If that is so, then why did Jesus use PS 82:6 in his defense when the Jews confronted him in Jn 10:33 when they said......I did a brief word search on "gods" using the Online Bible. The context of those scriptures is that the word "gods" refers to demons, lifeless idols, or people who will perish off the earth as in Jer 10:11 and Ps 82. That hardly makes a case for there being other gods floating around out there.It's obvious from all the scriptures which I just now looked at (some 200 plus) that "gods" when used in reference to people does not mean a powerful spiritual entity as we think of God.
.....but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
......Do you suppose Jesus' response (vs 34) was illogical? I don't think so.....
DAVEH: So......If we have the capability of becoming as God by knowing the difference between good and evil, then what is it that separates us from becoming a God? Seems to me the answer would be sin. If we were sinless, do you think we (or should I say, Adam & Eve) could become God? I know that doesn't make sense from your perspective, but so far it seems included in the definition for being a God is......I believe that it likely means two things: we are each our own god in as much as we are self-centered and put ourselves first, and we have become like gods, as did Adam and Eve, because we know good and evil.
1) Knowing good from evil.
2) Being sinless.
.......Boiling it down to these simple premises, it is my belief that we have the ultimate potential to become one with God.
There are certainly other attributes pertaining to God, but these two fascinate me, because of A&E's situation in the Garden of Eden. You probably have not been in TT long enough to hear my previous comments relating to this, but based on my LDS biases, I believe God intended for Adam and Eve to partake of the FF. That is the reason he placed the tree of knowledge in the garden. And, he knew they would partake of it, which was necessary to implement the plan of salvation.
From your (Protestant?) perspective, Vincent, why do you think God foreordained Jesus to be the Redeemer before he even placed the tree of knowledge in the Garden of Eden?
Another thought occured to me as I read Ps 97:9 (RSV) "For thou, O LORD, art most high over all the earth; thou art exalted far above all gods." If I understand lds-ism correctly, they say that God the Father was once a man like us.
DAVEH: That is an assumption that many make, but I've not heard anything doctrinal to substantiate it. So.....as far as I know, it is all speculative.If this is true, there must have been another god who was the big kahuna when our Father was supposedly still a man,
DAVEH: Our Heavenly Father is the author of our existence. Whether there are other Gods higher than him.....who knows....it is speculative. What we do know is that there are Gods lower (Jesus being one). From our perspective, it is our Heavenly Father to whom we worship and give recognizance and glory.yet Ps 97 says that He is above all gods. How can He be above the god(s)
who came before Him (assuming that lds-ism is correct)?vincent j. fultonOn Sun, 29 Feb 2004 22:10:40 -0800 Dave <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:The problem in Mormonism is that you open
up again the Roman and Greek idea of there being many gods, which I
believe would be contrary to Scripture and the cherished teaching of
Scripture that there is only one God.
DAVEH: I don't see it that way at all........Paul pretty well explained it in 1Cor 8:5-6......For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,) But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
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