Re: [TruthTalk] The Trinity

[Dave]

David Miller wrote: DaveH wrote: With one purpose, they (including the HS) form the Godhead......which purpose is encompassed in the plan of salvation. At least that's how I see it, DavidM. The problem with simplifying the discussion to saying that they were one in purpose only DAVEH:  Who used the term ONLY??? is that it does not explain why someone like Moses would not also be God. Under this viewpoint, you would surely view Joseph Smith as God too. DAVEH:   Let me ask you, DavidM.....what do you perceive oneness to mean as it is used in Jn 17:21..... That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. .......Do you believe that the oneness referred to by Jesus is not referring to or has anything to do with  purpose?  To carry this a bit further, do you think our Heavenly Father's purpose is different than that of his Son, Jesus?   And....should our purpose be any different than theirs? >From my perspective, what you do with the Godhead is exactly what the Homosexuals are doing to marriage. You are un-defining it by saying that it only has to do with purpose. DAVEH:  Please go back and read my posts, DavidM.  Did I at any time suggest it ONLY has to do with purpose.  So....why would you say I am un-defining it??? A homosexual looks at marriage as simply defining a lifelong union of two people that confers certain legal advantages. A Christian looks at marriage as a lifelong union between a man and a woman who become one flesh. The Christian view of marriage goes far beyond the homosexual view, especially because we believe it typifies and explains the Godhead. DAVEH:  OK.....I understand that.  Now I am trying to find out what oneness (of God, Jesus and us) means to you IF you think it means something other than purpose.  So.....do you disagree with me, DavidM.....Does the oneness that describes God, Jesus and us have nothing to do with purpose???     Here's the deal, DavidM.....The T-Doctrine speaks to the oneness of God.  I've tried to find out just what that means, and so far I've not found consistency with the answers in their relation to the Bible.  At first, Perry objected to my use of purpose to define oneness, and then he came back with an answer that included purpose.  I read Jn 17 and to me defining oneness as used there as purpose sure seems to make sense.  Yet you and I suspect others apparently cringe when I suggest such.....WHY???  If you have a better way of defining it, what is it??? Peace be with you. David Miller, Beverly Hills, Florida. -- ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Dave Hansen [EMAIL PROTECTED] http://www.langlitz.com ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ If you wish to receive things I find interesting, I maintain Five email lists... JOKESTER, OPINIONS, LDS, STUFF and MOTORCYCLE.