BLAINE:  Where did Kevin get such a fancy--and inappropriate--word?  This 
word--necromancy--refers to communicating with the DEAD.  Notice the emphasis 
on the word, "DEAD."  
Joseph Smith's doctrine of baptism for the dead did not come from the single 
passage in 1 Corinthians 15:29. The doctrine of Baptism for the dead came by 
way of revelation from Jesus Christ, a living breathing fully alive personage.  
Joseph described him as being "glorious beyond description."  This does not 
sound like "necromancy." to me.  
Are you saying you believe Jesus Christ, and maybe God the father, are 
Necromantic?--those who are dead, communicating with the living? 

NECROMANCY BAPTISM is essential for the faith?
C'MON Blaine
 
1 Co. Chapter 15: Verses 1,2,3,9,10,11,12,14,15,17,19 Contains FIRST Person 
pronouns, "we" "our" "you" "your" "ye", Paul is speaking to his Christian 
audience about things that 
pertain to them. 
 
1 Co 15:29 Else what shall THEY do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead 
rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?
Here Paul abruptly switches gear and refers to a group outside of the 
Christians he had been refering to throughout the whole chapter. He now uses 
the THIRD person pronoun "they", since he is refering to PAGANs and Heathens. 
Is Paul mentioning or teaching here? Is he questioning or putting forth an 
essential teaching? If Paul was endorsing the teaching 
he would have said "what shall WE do" instead he excludes himself from the 
practice in his use of "THEY"
 
Baptism for the dead was not a teaching of the primitive Church. The church 
father Tertullian, writing in about A.D. 180, makes this comment on 1 
Corinthians 15:29 � �His [Paul�s] only aim in alluding to it was that he might 
all the more firmly insist upon the resurrection of the body, in proportion as 
they who were VAINLY baptized for the dead resorted to the 
practice from their belief of such a resurrection.� The Five Books Against 
Marcion, V,10 in The Ante-Nicene Fathers (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, no date), 
3:449
 
Vs 12 �Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among 
you that there is no resurrection of the dead?�
Paul is refuting false teachings including this wrong teaching, from "some 
among you"
It is not wise to build a whole doctrine on a single verse and a question not a 
statement at that!
 
The Book of Mormon is described as containing �the fullness of the everlasting 
gospel� DC 27:5
Why does the Book of Mormon not contain such teaching, if Baptism is a central 
teaching of the LDS Church?
Where then is the EVIDENCE that the people of the BoM knew of or practised 
baptism?
 
If Baptism is essential to the Gospel & Salvation, then why does Paul say?
1 Corinthians 1:17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel
They are 2 separate things, on the one hand Baptism (NOT sent), the other 
Gospel (sent).
If baptism was an essential part of the Gospel, then he would have been "sent" 
to perform such. Instead he was sent to Preach the Gospel.

"[EMAIL PROTECTED]" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

Blaine: You are arguing with a dead piece of wood, DaveH. Kevin is not a 
Christian, or he would believe in revelation, and baptism, which are essential 
Christian doctrines. He has his own religion. I have no idea where he gets it, 
but it appears quite consistently anti-Christian. On the other hand, Kevin 
claims to love God and worship Jesus Christ--also consistently. I wonder, 
Kevin, are you a fulfillment of the words of God to Joseph Smith when He said, 
"They worship me with their lips, but their hearts are far from me?" 

DAVEH: Hey Kevin........Do you have a problem with me using 1Cor 15:29 in 
support of other Biblical passages that become cumulative evidence that the 
Primitive Christians believed a water baptism was necessary for salvation? It 
does lead one to that logical conclusion, does it not?

Kevin Deegan wrote: 
C'MON JD, Who scripture twists? If you use any scripture at all, most of the 
time we get book citations or personal revelation from you. Besides doctrine 
should not be built on ONE lone verse anymore than a doctrine should be built 
on a verse that is a question. Such as we see with "what shall they do that are 
baptised for the dead?" that our Necromancing Mormon friends are so fond of.




NECROMANCY BAPTISM is essential for the faith?
C'MON Blaine
 
1 Co. Chapter 15: Verses 1,2,3,9,10,11,12,14,15,17,19 Contains FIRST Person 
pronouns, "we" "our" "you" "your" "ye", Paul is speaking to his Christian 
audience about things that 
pertain to them. 
 
1 Co 15:29 Else what shall THEY do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead 
rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?
Here Paul abruptly switches gear and refers to a group outside of the 
Christians he had been refering to throughout the whole chapter. He now uses 
the THIRD person pronoun "they", since he is refering to PAGANs and Heathens. 
Is Paul mentioning or teaching here? Is he questioning or putting forth an 
essential teaching? If Paul was endorsing the teaching 
he would have said "what shall WE do" instead he excludes himself from the 
practice in his use of "THEY"
 
Baptism for the dead was not a teaching of the primitive Church. The church 
father Tertullian, writing in about A.D. 180, makes this comment on 1 
Corinthians 15:29 � �His [Paul�s] only aim in alluding to it was that he might 
all the more firmly insist upon the resurrection of the body, in proportion as 
they who were VAINLY baptized for the dead resorted to the 
practice from their belief of such a resurrection.� The Five Books Against 
Marcion, V,10 in The Ante-Nicene Fathers (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, no date), 
3:449
 
Vs 12 �Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among 
you that there is no resurrection of the dead?�
Paul is refuting false teachings including this wrong teaching, from "some 
among you"
It is not wise to build a whole doctrine on a single verse and a question not a 
statement at that!
 
The Book of Mormon is described as containing �the fullness of the everlasting 
gospel� DC 27:5
Why does the Book of Mormon not contain such teaching, if Baptism is a central 
teaching of the LDS Church?
Where then is the EVIDENCE that the people of the BoM knew of or practised 
baptism?
 
If Baptism is essential to the Gospel & Salvation, then why does Paul say?
1 Corinthians 1:17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel
They are 2 separate things, on the one hand Baptism (NOT sent), the other 
Gospel (sent).
If baptism was an essential part of the Gospel, then he would have been "sent" 
to perform such. Instead he was sent to Preach the Gospel.

"[EMAIL PROTECTED]" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

Blaine: You are arguing with a dead piece of wood, DaveH. Kevin is not a 
Christian, or he would believe in revelation, and baptism, which are essential 
Christian doctrines. He has his own religion. I have no idea where he gets it, 
but it appears quite consistently anti-Christian. On the other hand, Kevin 
claims to love God and worship Jesus Christ--also consistently. I wonder, 
Kevin, are you a fulfillment of the words of God to Joseph Smith when He said, 
"They worship me with their lips, but their hearts are far from me?" 

DAVEH: Hey Kevin........Do you have a problem with me using 1Cor 15:29 in 
support of other Biblical passages that become cumulative evidence that the 
Primitive Christians believed a water baptism was necessary for salvation? It 
does lead one to that logical conclusion, does it not?

Kevin Deegan wrote: 
C'MON JD, Who scripture twists? If you use any scripture at all, most of the 
time we get book citations or personal revelation from you. Besides doctrine 
should not be built on ONE lone verse anymore than a doctrine should be built 
on a verse that is a question. Such as we see with "what shall they do that are 
baptised for the dead?" that our Necromancing Mormon friends are so fond of.




----------
"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know 
how you ought to answer every man."  (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org

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