Izzy, I posted it an hour or so ago. if you still have it, look at the last post I made with subject "RE: [TruthTalk] Who is he?". let me know if you deleted it and I will send it to you.

Perry

From: "ShieldsFamily" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Reply-To: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org
To: <TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org>
Subject: RE: [TruthTalk] Who is he?
Date: Mon, 20 Jun 2005 22:33:21 -0500

Okay, Perry, I'll give it a go, even though I have not received any Ramah
understanding I am sure.  To me "He" who believes means "Whoever" believes.
And come to think of it, and is "baptized" must mean in the Holy Spirit,
rather than water, because the thief on the cross surely wasn't water
baptized but he did have the Holy Spirit within to help him enter into
understanding that Jesus was the true Son of God.  So what has the Lord
shown you? (I can't wait to hear) Izzy

-----Original Message-----
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Charles Perry Locke
Sent: Monday, June 20, 2005 8:06 AM
To: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Who is he?

John, thanks for responding. Jesus indeed spoke v. 16, but to whom was
Christ referring when he used "He"?

   Any other TT'rs care to give thier insight to these questions? I know
this does not appear to raise any controversy, so hasn't generated much
interest, but where I am going with this may step on so many toes that it
may become controversial. Of course, maybe everyone already understood this
but me, and the Spirit was just bringing me up to speed!

   The reason that I am asking is that quite late the other night I had a
stroke of insight into the meaning of v. 16 that was totally different than
I previously understood. Did this come to me through the Spirit? Well, I DO
pray often that the Spirit will give me insight into the Word of God, and
that I will see and understand it correctly. I believe that is what happened

to change my understanding of this verse.

After coming to this new understanding, I gave it the "sleep on it" test,

and it survived. upon re-reading the passage it still meant the same thing
to me the next morning.

   A lot of people may disagree with me because it refutes a major
proof-text used by many. (Not that their point may not be made elsewhere,
but definitely not here in v. 16.) There is a secondary use of v 16-20 as
another prooftext that also will be refuted. This is very rich indeed.

   I wanted to present this to my Christian peers on TT, to see what the
consensus is. I want to hear from as many as have the time to read and give
their understanding, then I will present it as I now understand it. If the
spirit has indeed lead me into truth it will be interesting.

Perry



>From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
>Reply-To: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org
>To: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org
>Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Who is he?
>Date: Mon, 20 Jun 2005 01:31:59 -0400
>
>1.  Christ
>2.  Water
>
>-----Original Message-----
>From: Charles Perry Locke <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>To: truthtalk@mail.innglory.org
>Sent: Sun, 19 Jun 2005 21:35:41 -0700
>Subject: [TruthTalk] Who is he?
>
>
>I have been studying Mark 16:14-20, and have two open questions for all TT
>members.
>
>1. In verse 16, who is the antecedant to the pronoun "He" that starts out
>that verse?
>2. Again, in verse 16, what type of baptism is Jesus discussing here?
>
>Thanks,
>Perry
>
>----------
>"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may
>know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6)
>http://www.InnGlory.org
>
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"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know
how you ought to answer every man."  (Colossians 4:6)
http://www.InnGlory.org

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"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org

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"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you 
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