-----Original Message-----
From: David Miller <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: [email protected]
Sent: Fri, 24 Jun 2005 17:27:03 -0400
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Eternal Sonship
John wrote: > Daivid, David , David -- what does the fact > that " the unique Son is forever intimately a part > (in the bosom) of the Father" have to do with > the syntax of John 1:1-18??? I suggest absolutely > nothing. It has everything to do with understanding the terms "begotten" and "Son" that he is using. He first brings up the concept of "son of God" in reference to those who received the Light, that they received power to become sons of God. Then after he introduces how the Logos became flesh, he introduces the aspect of his uniqueness, being the only begotten son.
Actually, he first brings up the fact that Jesus (the Word) IS GOD !!!
I do not find a statement as to "how " the Logos became flesh -- but I do see a heavy
emphasis before and after the statement in v 14 that Jesus is God. Placing Him in (eis) the
bosom of the Father demands an intimate incorporation of the two - the Father nad the unique Son.
Some of this is from class notes and membory of a 2nd year greek class taken by me back in 1969.
I will take time to refresh my memory -- or perhaps the very youthful Bill Taylor
will have something to say on this passage.
This clearly refers to his unique birth,
I do not know why you say this. "clearly refers" means to me that this is the opinion of theologians,
students and scholars. Those who lurk on this site (and it is clear to me that you often address them to a fauolt)
You are aware, I am sure, that there is a host of scholarship that disagrees with your conclusion.
If Jesus is the eternal Son, "begotten " simply cannot refer to the virgin birth. There is an
abundance of shcolarship on both sides of this question. The "virgin birth" is nohwere even hinted at in the Godpel of John.
being born not of men, but of the Holy Ghost. And all this points to his being in the bosom of the Father, speaking again of his birth in the flesh through supernatural means and his ancestory actually being found in God himself. So what qualifies Jesus to speak and declare God to everyone? His unique birth, being the only begotten son of the Father. Everybody else had earthly dads. And I would argue that what qualifies
Jesus to present God to the world is the rather profound fact thaT -- aaaa hhhh HE IS GOD !!!!!!
John wrote: > If the son is FOREVER in the bosom - there is no > "before or after the Word." i"18 states a fact without > regard to syntax. I don't know what you are talking about with this word "forever." What version are you reading now? YOUR modern version, the NASB, doesn't use this word forever. It doesn't even use the word "son" in John 1:18. can you make a guess as to what I am
doing or "reading" at this time. Think "lexical." John 1:18 (NASB) (18) No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him. Do you ditch this version when it does not support your doctrines? How could the NASB get your strongest verse for the eternal sonship doctrine so wrong? I will work on an answer to the later question. The former is a waste of time
and not a serious question IMO. Peace be with you. David Miller. ---------- "Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org If you do not want to receive posts from this list, send an email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] and you will be unsubscribed. If you have a friend who wants to join, tell him to send an e-mail to [EMAIL PROTECTED] and he will be subscribed.
