I have read that the word "perfect" in 1611 meant what "complete" means to
us today. Try rereading that verse with "complete" in place of "perfect" and
see if it sounds any different to you.
Do we have anyone on TT that can confirm what I have read regarding the
denotation of the word "perfect" in 1611? Languages evolve, as you all know,
and English is no excuse. Things today do not always mean what they did
almost 496 years ago.
Perry
From: Terry Clifton <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Reply-To: [email protected]
To: [email protected]
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Jesus of the Bible
Date: Sat, 02 Jul 2005 12:34:42 -0500
Kevin Deegan wrote:
...........
According to one LDS prophet: "In his Sermon on the Mount he made the
command to all men: "Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is
in heaven is perfect." (Matt.5:48.) Being perfect means to *triumph over
sin*. This is a *mandate* from the Lord. He is just and wise and kind.
He would never require anything from his children which was not for their
benefit and which was not attainable. * Perfection therefore is an
achievable goal*."
Remember it says "BE" not future tense become perfect, how are you NOW?
Are you Triumphing? Are you perfect?
==============================================================================
When God gave Moses the law, He knew that it could not be kept. It was an
impossible goal. Something to strive for, but never attainable. I see the
command to be perfect in the same light.
We strive to be perfect. Some come closer than others, but we all come
short. It is an impossible goal. God knows that. It is to show us our
shortcomings, our need for a Savior, who was perfect and took our place.
Terry
----------
"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you
ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org
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