Blaine: Possible, but not probable. IMO, the word "perfect" is too much a part of the language to have changed meanings.
HERE IS WHAT IT MEANT IN 1828 accordoing to NOAH WEBSTER:
http://65.66.134.201/cgi-bin/webster/webster.exe?search_for_texts_web1828=perfect
PER'FECT, a. [L. perfectus, perficio, to complete; per and facio, to do or make through, to carry to the end.]
Perfect chord,in music, a concord or union of sounds which is perfectly coalescent and agreeable to the ear, as the fifth and the octave; a perfect consonance.
A perfect flower, in botany, has both stamen and pistil, or at least another and stigma.
Perfect tense, in grammar, the preterit tense; a tense which expresses an act completed.
PER'FECT, v.t. [L. perfectus, perficio.] To finish or complete so as to leave nothing wanting; to give to any thing all that is requisite to its nature and kind; as, to perfect a picture or statue. 2 Chron.8.
[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
In a message dated 7/4/2005 8:52:33 A.M. Mountain Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:At the time the King James Version was translated it is possible that the
meaning of "perfect" was appropriate due to it's denotation at that time,
but has evolved to mean something slightly different today.Blaine: Possible, but not probable. IMO, the word "perfect" is too much a part of the language to have changed meanings. If it did change, please do more than speculate--show some evidence it did such. Otherwise, I have to conclude you are merely grabbing at a straw.
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