JD wrote to Judy:
> When the book declares that "none are righteous, no
> not [even] one," your bias closes your eyes to that
> declaration --  one stated in the Old and confirmed in
> the New to a group of fellow Christians.

You are lifting a passage completely out of context.  The book said this 
before Christ ever came.  Don't you think Christ is an exception to this 
statement by virtue of the fact that he lived outside its time frame?  And 
if you accept that Christ is righteous despite this declaration of the book, 
why can you not accept that those in Christ are also righteous despite this 
declaration of the book?

There is a parallel consideration found in 1 Cor. 2:10.  He quotes Isaiah 
saying, "eye hath not seen, nor ear heard..." etc.  You know the passage. 
However, in the very next verse, he says, "But God hath revealed them to us 
by his Spirit."  Therefore, when the Spirit enters the picture, the natural 
things spoken about man in the book no longer apply.  Without the Spirit, 
men do not know the things of God, but with the Spirit, they do.  Without 
the Spirit, there is none righteous, no not one.  With the Spirit and the 
cleansing of the Word, there are some who are righteous.  Whoever is in 
Christ is righteous, despite the declaration of the book that "none are 
righteous, no not one."

You have asked for exegesis.  Now you have some.  Deal with this from an 
exegetical perspective.  What say you?

Peace be with you.
David Miller. 

----------
"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know 
how you ought to answer every man."  (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org

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