I can't read this without laughing, David. I'm going to bed.
Jd
-----Original Message-----
From: David Miller <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: [email protected]
Sent: Mon, 7 Nov 2005 17:09:09 -0500
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Torah & Jewish traditions
JD wrote:
> Also, please note that the author gives as his primary
> meaning of the two Grk words, telos and telous, with
> this definition -- "An end, term, termination, completion.
> Particularly only in respect to time." I do not see that as
> being so very different from the definition of Thayer.
I don't either, but this is only one definition. He explains further that its usage is not limited to this. So does Thayer.
JD wrote:
> "Goal" is omitted - because, at this point in his discussion,
> he is only concerned for the primary usage of the word(s).
> His comments at VII fall along the lines of what I am saying.
> Zodhiates does not separate "termination" from "goal" when
> referencing Romans 10:4. You have quoted something that
> seems to confirm my conclusion.
I realize this, which is why I had said that my only point was to address your use of "only." Zodhiates, like many Greek scholars, let's his theological views taint his explanations.
JD wrote:
> If DM agrees with the wording of VII, perhaps we
> are not talking about the same things in our discussions.
> It 's happened many times before !!
I don't think his wording of VII is helpful for this discussion, but his treatment ought to cause you to drop the word "only" from what you had said before. I consider Zodhiates a possible reading of Rom. 10:4, but not the final word on the matter. It was your "final word" presentation using the word "only" that I was objecting to.
Peace be with you.
David Miller.
----------
"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org
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> Also, please note that the author gives as his primary
> meaning of the two Grk words, telos and telous, with
> this definition -- "An end, term, termination, completion.
> Particularly only in respect to time." I do not see that as
> being so very different from the definition of Thayer.
I don't either, but this is only one definition. He explains further that its usage is not limited to this. So does Thayer.
JD wrote:
> "Goal" is omitted - because, at this point in his discussion,
> he is only concerned for the primary usage of the word(s).
> His comments at VII fall along the lines of what I am saying.
> Zodhiates does not separate "termination" from "goal" when
> referencing Romans 10:4. You have quoted something that
> seems to confirm my conclusion.
I realize this, which is why I had said that my only point was to address your use of "only." Zodhiates, like many Greek scholars, let's his theological views taint his explanations.
JD wrote:
> If DM agrees with the wording of VII, perhaps we
> are not talking about the same things in our discussions.
> It 's happened many times before !!
I don't think his wording of VII is helpful for this discussion, but his treatment ought to cause you to drop the word "only" from what you had said before. I consider Zodhiates a possible reading of Rom. 10:4, but not the final word on the matter. It was your "final word" presentation using the word "only" that I was objecting to.
Peace be with you.
David Miller.
----------
"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org
If you do not want to receive posts from this list, send an email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] and you will be unsubscribed. If you have a friend who wants to join, tell him to send an e-mail to [EMAIL PROTECTED] and he will be subscribed.
