-------------- Original message --------------
From: "David Miller" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
John, this was sent to the list when I think you were off the list. Does it make sense to you? Do you care to comment?
David Miller.
----- Original Message -----
Sent: Thursday, February 09, 2006 5:33 PM
Subject: [TruthTalk] Greek Present Indicative
John, a couple of passages for you to consider.
1. In Mat. 13:44, a man sells all that he has and buys a field. The word for "buyeth" is present indicative, but we do not understand from this that he continually keeps buying the field over and over again forever with no end in sight.
2. In Mat. 26:63, the high priest adjures Jesus by the living God, to tell him whether he is the Christ. The word for "adjures" is present indicative. We do not understand from this that he keeps continually adjuring Christ into the future forever with no end in sight.
My point is that the present indicative alone is not enough to make a case for continuous type action.
David Miller.
