John, I have read your post carefully, and while many times I do miss your 
intended meaning, I don't think this is one of those times.  You have not 
said anything new in this post that I did not understand from your previous 
posts.  Perhaps you are not grasping my point.

Your previous point included the idea that because you have identified the 
verb in 1 John as present indicative active, it must refer to a time of 
action that is continuous and linear rather than at one point in time 
(punctiliar, which is the common usage of the aorist tense).  Greek studies 
often make a big point of how tenses in Greek convey type of action rather 
than time because in English the tenses we use tend to be more about time 
than type of action.  This is a difficult concept for beginning students to 
understand, so it is hammered pretty hard in beginning classes.  The problem 
is that sometimes there has been too much emphasis upon it.

In past posts, you have argued that you know something about 1 John 1:7 
because of your knowledge of Greek.  You have relied heavily upon your 
ability to identify the tense and mood of the verb to make your case that 
the passage can only be understood as linear action with no end in sight. 
The idea is that an ending of ing in English better conveys the meaning of 1 
John 1:7, even though there is no other translator who has translated the 
passage this way.

Now, in this post, after reconsidering the issue for two hours, you argue 
that context tells you that the ing ending is warranted.  I can handle that 
argument just fine.  That is a possibility, but now we shift to discuss 
context rather than the fact that the word in Greek is present indicative 
active.  Furthermore, context can be examined better in English, so the rest 
of those on TruthTalk who do not know Greek can consider the passage on an 
equal footing with you.  Let's talk about the context in English and 
consider whether the author means to convey "cleansing" in a linear way, or 
"cleanses" in the sense of taking a bath, which common sense tells us that 
we will get out of the bath tub at some point and not just sit in that tub 
forever because we are constantly getting dirty while sitting in the bath 
tub.

I'm not sure I completely disagree with your ulitmate point.  There is a 
sense in which I need to be cleansed continually by the blood of Jesus 
Christ because of this body of flesh that I live in.  I just disagree with 
your thinking that the matter is settled because of the present indicative 
active construction of the Greek.  I hope you understand better my point. 
If you do understand my point, you might better be able to hear the 
perspective of others like Judy or Dean instead of laughing at them because 
of their ignorance of Greek.

Your concept of interpretive plurality is a good one.  Please apply it to 
the present situation, attempting to understand how there may be aspects to 
how others read 1 John 1:7 that might enhance your own understanding, and 
how your understanding might actually fit in with their piece of the puzzle 
and thereby enhance their understanding without them necessarily discarding 
everything they know about the passage.

David Miller.


----- Original Message ----- 
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: [email protected] ; TruthTalk
Cc: David Miller
Sent: Thursday, February 16, 2006 12:16 AM
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Greek Present Indicative

David, I really wish you would read my posts carefully.  You just do not do 
this.  I have said many times, now.  that my received teaching in "biblical 
languages"  first year Greek back in the 60's was this:  "present indicative 
active " pictures continuing action in present time with no end in sight." 
I have illustrated that with one " who is walking to the store."  Present 
action  is not necessarily  eternal but it is always "action with no end in 
sight."    The difference is not one of time but of action  (punctiliar 
versus linear.)

In I John 1:7 -  the blood that "cleanses us from our sins" is stated in 
present time, as you well know.  That means that just as we see the boy 
"walking to the store,"  we see Christ "cleansing us from our sins."   Where 
we might argue that this [third class condition]  action does not go on 
forever, it is certainly is occuring in present time and , by no means, is a 
past-time [aorist] activity.   If we tie this to verse 8 and the present 
actives   "if we are saying,"   " we are not having,"    "we are deceiving," 
a rather weighty syntactial  argument can be made for the continual flow of 
the blood of the Lamb.   There is meaning to be derived from form.  But 
certainly, semantics is an equally important aspect of the hermeneutcial 
equation.   Bill believes the historical context is critical to this 
discussion (the gnostic consideration.)  I will let him explain.

I  personally believe in the principle of "interpretvie plurality" when it 
comes to biblical language studies.   That is my term and I am admittedly a 
flat footed novice.   I use the term to summarize the idea that a pluality 
of considerations (I want to say "usually two [ideas]"  -  but maybe this 
plurality has no counted limitations.)  exist in a single statement of 
truth.    Examples?  Well, the plurality that existes in scripture (so this 
is not my idea  -  only my observation)  with regard to prophesy.   The 
young woman and the virgin woman;  the many nations (the seed of Abraham) 
and the Christ (Paul's thinking on the seed of Abraham.
And what of personal experience.   how many times have any number of us made 
conclusions drawn from a particular passage, grown from the effects of those 
conclusions and then changed our thinking concerning  those  given scripture 
and , once again, experienced continued growth?   If it is the Living Word, 
perhaps we can argue that such a statement of economy is a necesary 
deduction.

Does that mean there is more than one truth?  No, of course not.  But it 
does mean that the truth of a particular passage comes to us on "time 
delay."  And, so, you and I argue as if each of us is right to the exclusion 
of the other.   Whether or not that is true,  each can grow  ----  certainly 
I have  --  because of what we currently believe.

The syntax of this passage allows for a variation of interpretive 
considerations.

I see the sacrifice of Christ being "once and for all time" because it is 
continual.

You see that it is "once and for all time" because it was once given for all 
but is limited to past sins.

[Bill has a third and well stated consideration, as well.]

Does the syntax allow for more than one  consideration?  Perhaps.   But I do 
believe there are more syntactical issues with the later than with the 
former.  Regarding your final conclusion  ---    I do agree !!!   I have 
taken about two hours to review and reconsider.  I have not changed my 
ind  --   but if your last statement is not true on a wider range of 
technical issues,  spiritual "truths" would be the product of reasoned 
opinion to the exclusion of  the passion of the Indwelling.   "Discovery" is 
not the product of either/or  but both.

I would commend you to a study of those passages that use present indicative 
active as continuous and unlimited action.  Surely there are some that 
exist.  For theological reasons,  I believe this passage to be one.

jd





-------------- Original message -------------- 
From: "David Miller" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>

John, this was sent to the list when I think you were off the list.  Does it 
make sense to you?  Do you care to comment?

David Miller.

----- Original Message ----- 
From: David Miller
To: TruthTalk
Sent: Thursday, February 09, 2006 5:33 PM
Subject: [TruthTalk] Greek Present Indicative


John, a couple of passages for you to consider.

1.  In Mat. 13:44, a man sells all that he has and buys a field.  The word 
for "buyeth" is present indicative, but we do not understand from this that 
he continually keeps buying the field over and over again forever with no 
end in sight.

2.  In Mat. 26:63, the high priest adjures Jesus by the living God, to tell 
him whether he is the Christ.  The word for "adjures" is present indicative. 
We do not understand from this that he keeps continually adjuring Christ 
into the future forever with no end in sight.

My point is that the present indicative alone is not enough to make a case 
for continuous type action.

David Miller. 

----------
"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know 
how you ought to answer every man."  (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org

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