You do not care about translations, but you should.  Translators attempt to 
use the word form that best conveys the meaning of the text.  In contrast, 
sophists tell us what the Greek really says while ignoring the words that 
true translators end up using.

I don't understand many of your questions as they appear to be all over the 
board.  Perhaps this is all beyond your ability to understand right now 
because of your present attitude toward my input.  As for your last 
question, my answer is no, of course not.

David Miller

----- Original Message ----- 
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: [email protected] ; [email protected]
Sent: Saturday, February 18, 2006 8:32 PM
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Greek Present Indicative



You are still sticking with your bias of how you have been taught to read
the present tense.  Don't you notice how you keep retranslating the words
into an ing form that accepted translators do not use in their translations
(KJV, NASB, etc.)?   I don't care about the translations.  It (ing) is a way 
of bring out the linear action of the verb and it is the accepted manner of 
doing so in all the grammars I have seen.   What do you think I was 
presenting to you when I gave sources complete with page reference?   They 
all use the "ing"   and for the same reason I use that ending.  Are you 
suggesting that Robertson's comments (as you understand them)   trumps all 
of these grammictal illustration?   That the first year boys simply did not 
get it right  --  all of them?   But more than that  -- you do not think 
that "walk in the light" is an ONGOING activity?  Or that as long as I deny 
sin ()whatever that means) I will CONTINUE to be considered a liar.  You 
don't see that?   And, are you saying that present indicative actives never 
mean to imply linear action?

jd


 

----------
"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know 
how you ought to answer every man."  (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org

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