Re: [TruthTalk] Greek Present Indicative

[Judy Taylor]

Not true Lance; EVERYONE is not the righteousness of God in Christ   On Sun, 19 Feb 2006 08:01:30 -0500 "Lance Muir" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes: EVERYONE IS, JUDY. ----- Original Message ----- From: Judy Taylor To: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org Cc: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org Sent: February 19, 2006 07:37 Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Greek Present Indicative I'm glad for you Lance because if you did the only sign it would be is a sign of your ignorance. This should read as follows:   "BEHOLD DAVID MILLER, REDEEMED FROM THE CURSE, ONE WHO IS BOUGHT WITH A PRICE AND WHO IS PRESENTLY THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF GOD IN CHRIST RESIDES AT THIS HOME".     Lance writes: We promise not to make up signs reading 'BEWARE! DAVID MILLER, A (redeemed) SINNER (past, present and, future) ONE WHO STANDS ON EQUAL SINFUL FOOTING WITH QUEERS RESIDES AT THIS HOME'   On Sun, 19 Feb 2006 05:50:02 -0500 "Lance Muir" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes: DAVID:We await your response to the specific post re:DM/SIN Was it not you who made the christology/sin  along with the ideaological/pragmatic distinction?   DAVID:It may be that not unlike the cast in 'Enron: The Smartest Guys in the Room'  that though your Greek grammar,  logic,  vocabulary aand your grooming (?) are impeccable, IFF you, along with the rest of humanity, ACTUALLY DO SIN IN THOUGHT/WORD/DEED DAILY then, you are simply wrong for the 'right' reasons. Don't be affeared David, y'all wouldn't be the first to have so thoroughly 'missed the mark'.(theologically) Thank the Lord David, provision has been made for such as you.     To: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org ; TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org Sent: February 18, 2006 20:32 Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Greek Present Indicative   You are still sticking with your bias of how you have been taught to read the present tense.  Don't you notice how you keep retranslating the words into an ing form that accepted translators do not use in their translations (KJV, NASB, etc.)?   I don't care about the translations.  It (ing) is a way of bring out the linear action of the verb and it is the accepted manner of doing so in all the grammars I have seen.   What do you think I was presenting to you when I gave sources complete with page reference?   They all use the "ing"   and for the same reason I use that ending.  Are you suggesting that Robertson's comments (as you understand them)   trumps all of these grammictal illustration?   That the first year boys simply did not get it right  --  all of them?   But more than that  -- you do not think that "walk in the light" is an ONGOING activity?  Or that as long as I deny sin ()whatever that means) I will CONTINUE to be considered a liar.  You don't see that?   And, are you saying that present indicative actives never mean to imply linear action?    jd