On Sunday 16 October 2005 01:42, Brij Bhushan Vij wrote: > The question I raised is NOT which value for Pi is more accurate & why? BUT > that *is there a value for Pi that satisfy the relation: a circle has 2 Pi > radians - without defining either Pi or radian*? If there is a deviation to > value for Pi, with WHAT are we attempting to compare, to kaow how musch is > this OFF; AND from what standard! > I claim my value for Pi that defines *both the value for Pi and Radian and > FIXES their values*. Thus, Pi =100000/31831 (exact); and fixes radian at > 57*.2958 =57* 17/44".88 - a value fixed by International Society of > Mathematics.
You are talking nonsense. The value of pi is irrational. It can be defined as the ratio of circumference to diameter, the smallest positive number whose sine is 0, or the sum of any of various infinite series, and these are all the same number. 100000/31831 and 355/113 are not values of pi, they are approximations to pi. phma
