Quantum spin (nanometer level and below) is always in motion, and the anomaly
would be lack of motion - yet at the micro-level self-generated spin as angular
momentum would imply “perpetual motion” if it were a reproducible and
“harvestable” phenomenon. Is there a middle ground?
There are a number of YT videos that show experimental proof of the existence
of a magnetic vortex, which is a kind of dynamic spin. The problem is that
mainstream physics is unaware that there is such a phenomenon. It is not taught
at University and often considered as being as “fringe” such as an “aether” is
a fringe notion. In fact there are cross-connections. Part of the problem is
semantics, in that everyone agrees that an electric field superimposed on a
magnetic field will dynamically rotate, but usually an electric field requires
its own input power so there is no free lunch.
The real issue becomes this: can a static magnetic field from a PM generate its
own inherent electric field (no input) or another kind of field which has EM
characteristics? Since that will imply that an aether of some kind is present
it gets to be the fringe of the fringe. Of particular relevance is the
epo-field defined aether of Hotson.
We can see spontaneous magnetic vortex rotation in many videos (not faked) and
the direction of rotation changes when magnetic polarity is reversed. The
rotation is either left handed or right handed. You can see the salient points
in the debate about a magnetic spin vortex by watching this video or others
similar - and then reading the comments. As with most arguments involving
semantics – both sides are partially correct.
At about 2:10 and 3:10 in this video… which is probably the most important of
the lot wrt the Magnetic Spin Vortex…
…wjich is indisputable proof (not that anyone doubts it) that plasma ions in a
magnetic field will spontaneously rotate at extreme rpm.
The only question then becomes – does the aether exist in another way or
definition that resembles a plasma in 3-Space? And if so, can any significant
level of “free energy” be extracted, even if low?
IOW – and stated in reverse - when the magnetic field does not appear to
self-rotate, is that because there is no aether or because another associated
force overpower the weak magnetic spin vortex effect so as to inhibit rotation?
This evolves into an explanation which can explain the so-called Faraday
paradox in a slightly different way, and it relies on an aether similar to