I mean isn't obvious that if the reaction can be influenced by cooling the reactor then a temperature difference must be contributing to the reaction. What is the theoretical reason for rejecting this hypothesis? harry
From: Harry Veeder <[email protected]> >To: "[email protected]" <[email protected]> >Sent: Wednesday, July 27, 2011 10:50:39 PM >Subject: Re: [Vo]:modified fourier law > > >I think both the temperature gradient and the reactor temperature contribute >to the effect, IMO. > >Harry > >From: Damon Craig <[email protected]> >>To: Harry Veeder <[email protected]> >>Sent: Wednesday, July 27, 2011 4:45:55 PM >>Subject: Re: [Vo]:modified fourier law >> >> >>You’re alluding to a thermal gradient, where I think you are saying reaction rate is a function of the magnitude of the gradient. >> >>I don’t think it is the gradient that should be considered but the temperature itself. >> >>A thermal gradient is responsible for heat flow. The greater the temperature >>difference between two regions the more heat energy will flow. >> >>What you seem to >>On Tue, Jul 26, 2011 at 11:10 AM, Harry Veeder <[email protected]> wrote: >> >>Harry veeder wrote: >>>>To be more precise, the temperature difference between the inside of the >>>>reaction vessel and the water cannot be >greater than a certain value or >>>>the generation of heat will cease and the difference cannot be less than a >>>>certain >value or the reactor temperature will then begin to rise >>>>autonomously until the vessel melts. These crucial temperature differences >>>>are calculated by subtracting the water temperature from the optimal >>>>operating temperature of the vessel's interior. >>> >>> >> >> > >
