> How can they bill you for a name prior to when they stated there would
>be a fee? It seems this kind of a priori billing without agreement has
>been defeated in court many times before. I mean, it is just contrary to
>common sense and common law, nevermind contract law.
To clarify, they weren't billing back to before there were fees. They took
the first moment that fees were instituted and back billed years later to
those dates. This was after they had said they would not do this....since
they had enough catching up to do to just process current applications.
(IOW, fees were supposed to start for old domains when they got around to
billing you...sometimes years later.) I would bet it is illegal. I would
also bet that most folks, like me, can't get through the nic bureacracy
well enough to even start to fight them on that....besides they hold the
power by having the ability to turn off the domain. Further, it takes hours
to even reach a human being there most of the time. Feh.
Kayla
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