Well, yes,

in fact, I think we can guess that it would be dangereous an error
prone for the developer to have a key of the map with the same name as
the property.

So, indeed, it is not a problem if you first check for the property,
then the map value.

+1 for that,

--
Laurent

On 10/28/05, Johan Compagner <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> don't know if that is weird (that the key is not there)
> it can be completely valid.
> What happens if i do this:
>
> map.xxx = yyy
>
> First i try to get xxx key?
> Not there then i try to get xxx as a property
> still not there the back to the map?
>
> i still think that i can first check for the expression as a property then
> if not found it is map value
> (doesn't matter if the key isn't there or not)
>
> johan
>
>
>
>
> On 10/28/05, Laurent PETIT <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> >
> > On 10/28/05, Johan Compagner <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> > > > Does Wicket also check for direct public property of the same name ?
> > >
> > > not yet, but that is easy to build.
> >
> > That would be great.
> >
> > > > Same remark concerning maps vs beans.
> > > >
> > > > If find it great if we don't know if the property is contained in the
> > > > Map or is a property of the Model.
> > > i am alos still in favor the current impl by just doing dots nothing
> more.
> > > The only thing is that for maps that are also a bean is a bit difficult.
> > > But i find that a bad idea anyway.(a map that is also a bean)
> >
> > Yes, I agree, and for the following reason: the use case I thought of
> > was that, during refactoring, the model is first implemented using a
> > Map, and when it is needed to have an object instead (in order to do
> > some logic in the getter/setter, or for whatever reason), the Model is
> > replaced by an object.
> >
> > And then only the creation/injection of the model has to change, not
> > all the references to getter/setter.
> >
> > > > if the object is an instance of a Map:
> > > >    first try to interpret prop as a Map key
> >
> > > that will never fails (if it is a setter) (mymap.xxx = yyy)
> > > So i think it must be the other way around.
> > > First try to do a setter and then if that fails use it as a map.
> >
> > Yes it's true, I only thought of the get() part of the problem, shame on
> me.
> > But, as we are in the semantics of accessing an "existing" property,
> > what about doing a get() before the set.
> > And if the get() returns null, deduce that this is not a Map property
> > we want to bind to, and search javabean properties, then public
> > properties ?
> >
> > This does not seem to weird to me, since the absence of the key would
> > be as bad as the absence of a getter in this use case ?
> >
> >
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