Am Fri, 24 Feb 2012 13:40:53 +0100 schrieb Zdenek Wagner: >> From an old discussion on the mailing list >> (http://tug.org/mailman/htdig/xetex/2005-November/002842.html) I got >> the impression that mappings are "invisible" to the hyphenation >> routine and so I would have expected the translittered text to be >> hyphenated according the original russian rules but actually it is >> not hyphenated at all:
> Do the Russian hyphenation patterns contain patterns for the Latin > script? Well I would say, obviously not. But my question is if "...font mappings (unlike traditional TFM-based ligatures) are completely invisible to TeX's line-breaking process" how comes that the hyphenation routine *knows* that chars from a latin script are involved? Why doesn't it handle the hyphenation with the input chars? -- Ulrike Fischer -------------------------------------------------- Subscriptions, Archive, and List information, etc.: http://tug.org/mailman/listinfo/xetex
