Eugene and Marty (and others who have raised Equal Protection concerns),

Japan and several other countries have for years designated some train and 
subway cars (during peak travel times) as women-only in response to rampant 
sexual assault of women by men in those confined spaces.  Presume that 
Wikipedia is correct and 2/3 of all female subway riders in Japan have been 
sexually assaulted, many repeatedly, but only a tiny number of men have faced 
similar abuse.  Presume also that increased capacity, education, penalties, and 
law enforcement have failed to appreciably reduce the problem. And presume 
finally that a non-trivial number of women use public transportation only 
because they feel safe in women-only cars but would avoid public transportation 
otherwise because of the threat. (In other words presume that rejecting or 
abandoning women-only accommodations has, at the very least, a real negative 
impact on women).

If these presumptions held in the U.S., would you say women-only subway cars 
would violate the Equal Protection clause? Would your answer depend on the 
comparative level of harm faced by men who might have to ride in somewhat more 
crowded cars? Or would it be a per se violation in your estimation? If so, 
would an equal number of male-only trains make the policy ok even if there is 
no demand for them and it would exacerbate the overcrowding problems, thereby 
putting more women at risk of abuse?

Thanks,

Roger Severino

On Jun 7, 2016, at 18:18, Volokh, Eugene 
<vol...@law.ucla.edu<mailto:vol...@law.ucla.edu>> wrote:

               I agree entirely with Marty’s astute analysis in items 1 and 2, 
and with Marty’s conclusion that women-only swimming hours without 
corresponding men-only hours are unconstitutional; more shortly on the 
“gerrymander” question.

I should say, though, that I’m not sure whether the Equal Protection Clause 
would allow single-sex swimming hours both for men and women; I think that’s a 
hard question, which turns on whether the tolerance for same-sex shower rooms, 
restrooms, dorm room assignments, etc. should also extend to other situations 
that are relatively similar, but different enough that the national majority 
doesn’t see a sufficient privacy/modesty interest there.  Livingwell suggests 
that sex is a permissible bona fide qualification in such cases, where state 
laws that apply to private businesses are involved.  I’m not sure whether the 
Equal Protection Clause should likewise allow single-sex exercise programs, 
swimming pools, etc. when it comes to government organizations.

             Eugene

From: 
religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu> 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Marty Lederman
Sent: Tuesday, June 07, 2016 5:34 AM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics 
<religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>>
Subject: The Bedford pool exemption--a collection of reactions

Well, I'm sure glad I asked about this case -- this has been a wonderfully 
provocative and informative thread, thanks!

A few reactions and further questions:

1.  I'll start with the Establishment Clause.  First, let's assume for the sake 
of argument (and to clarify our analysis) a counterfactual, namely, that this 
were a classic religious exemption:  On Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays from 
9:15 to 11 a.m., and on Sunday afternoons from 2:45 to 4:45, the Bedford pool 
is open only to women who have religious objections to co-ed swimming.  Would 
that violate the Establishment Clause?

Most of the discussion here has focused on harm to those who would not be able 
to use the pool during those eight hours of the week.  But that's putting the 
cart before the horse.  Under governing doctrine, a religion-only accommodation 
is ok only if it alleviates a significant state-imposed burden on religious 
exercise.  Are the orthodox women significantly burdened by the city's general 
rule that its pools are open to the public at large?

Of course, that's a classic baselines dilemma.  On the one hand, one might say: 
 Yes, because their access to a very valuable and universally available public 
benefit is conditioned on their willingness to violate a religious injunction.  
Cf. Sherbert.  On the other hand, a city does not have to offer free swimming 
pools in the first instance, and such a gratuitous "benefit" is a whole lot 
less important than the unemployment benefits at issue in Sherbert.  Many 
people can and do fail to take advantage of public pools, and their lives are 
not dramatically diminished as a result.  Unlike in Sherbert, the offer of this 
benefit is very unlikely to induce anyone to violate religious injunctions.  
Or, to put it slightly differently, the "benefit" itself is access to a public 
pool (akin to a public park or other place of public accommodation); orthodox 
women simply wish that the city were also offering a different benefit, i.e., 
access to women-only pools; and the failure of the state to offer that 
alternative benefit cannot be viewed as a significant state-imposed burden on 
religious exercise.

If the "correct" answer is "yes, opening the pool to the public at large does 
significantly burden orthodox women's religion," then we would need to 
address--to weigh--the harm to the other NYC residents who are excluded during 
the eight hours.  But here's the interesting point (to me, anyway):  It's 
difficult to disaggregate the two assessments of "harm" on either side of the 
balance.  If you think that there is no significant harm to the orthodox women 
in not being able to use the pool at all, then, almost by definition, there 
wouldn't be any significant harm to the excluded residents in being closed off 
from swimming for eight hours a week.  The exemption might still be 
unconstitutional in such a case, because of the absence of state-imposed harm 
to religion; but that wouldn't be because of harm to third parties.  If, by 
contrast, you think that the rest of the Bedford residents are materially 
harmed by being excluded for eight hours, then wouldn't you have to concede 
that the state has harmed the orthodox women by imposing a condition that makes 
them unable to enjoy the pool at all?  In the latter case, with harm on both 
sides, the harm to the women if the exemption is denied would appear to be 
greater.  And therefore if a "balance" of harms were relevant to the EC 
equation (concededly a contested, and complicated, assumption, and one I am not 
necessarily endorsing here), the harm to the women presumably would outweigh 
the harm to other residents.

2.  OK, but, as several of you have noted, Bedford isn't the classic 
accommodation case.  The exemption in question is not religion-specific -- on 
its face it benefits all women, whether they have a religious objection or not. 
 Because of this, I agree there's a strong presumption that there's no 
Establishment Clause problem, regardless of third-party harms.  Indeed, 
expanding exemptions so that they are not religion-specific has long been 
viewed as a way to avoid EC problems, even though such expansions increase the 
harm to third parties.  Think of Justice Harlan's explanation of the tax 
exemption in Walz; or the Court's expansion of the conscientious exemption law 
in Welsh to avoid EC concerns.  The most common example of this in recent years 
is vaccination laws:  Whereas a purely religious exemption would likely violate 
the EC, most states allow exemptions to any parents who have religious or other 
objections, and that eliminates the constitutional problem, even as it 
increases the harm (and idiocy) of the exemption.  Other examples:  Texas could 
have cured the EC problem in Texas Monthly by expanding the exemption to 
secular magazines.  Most abortion "conscience clauses" (e.g., affording 
physicians the right to refuse involvement) also are not limited to religious 
objections.  Etc.  This makes sense, because legislatures will seldom be 
willing to expand exemptions in this way -- but when they do, the EC problem 
(generally) disappears.

3.  This does not mean, however, that the religious impetus for the exemption 
is necessarily irrelevant to constitutional analysis.  For one thing, as Chip 
emphasizes, this might be a de facto religious exemption, gerrymandered so that 
almost all of the benefited women are orthodox Jews.  (NYC does not provide 
single-sex hours to all the other millions of women in the city.)  In which 
case, we'd need to "apply" Kiryas Joel.  Which is complicated.

4.  More provocatively, perhaps, I think that the religious impetus for even a 
non-religion-specific "women-only" exemption might have a bearing on the Equal 
Protection question.

Let's assume, arguendo, that Eugene is correct that it would be constitutional 
for NYC to provide single-sex swimming hours for both sexes.  (I'm dubious, but 
willing to concede the point for the sake of argument.)  Even so, I think even 
Eugene would agree that providing such a benefit only to women, and not to 
men--as NYC has done here--is much more difficult to justify, because it is so 
manifestly based upon, and propagates, the sort of "women have more of a need 
for modesty" stereotypes that are constitutionally problematic (at best).

NYC's justification, in response to the EPC claim, would presumably be "we 
don't have any particular view about women's distinct needs for modesty; but we 
were doing this to accommodate an Orthodox Jewish community's particular views 
about the proper sex roles of women."

Wouldn't that justification be inadmissible, even if NYC vociferously (and 
truthfully) denied that it shared or endorsed the views of the orthodox 
community?  To be clear:  I'm not suggesting that such a justification would be 
inadmissible because the community's objection is religious, but instead 
because "accommodating religious views that are off-limits to the state itself" 
is not an adequate justification for the state's own sex-based discrimination.

Does that sound right?



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