Judy wrote > I
have no idea what you are talking about Bill. First you might define what
you mean by "hermeneutical criteria" and then tell me
how I hold your feet to the fire and excuse myself, because to me this is
nothing but an unfounded accusation. You say there is no such thing as
"spiritual death". I say there is and it is right under your nose in the
book of Genesis. Why not deal with the
facts? Just throwing out accusation solves
nothing.
The hermeneutical criteria that I am
questioning is the criteria of interpretation that you use against others
but are unwilling to apply to yourself. Let me state it in different words. At
the beginning of our debate over the Sonship of Christ, you sent a series of
posts stating that no where in Scripture are the words "eternal Son" used. You
therefore used that to draw the conclusion that the Son of God was not the
eternal Son of God. Do you remember this, or would you like me to dig up those
posts? Judy, the words "spiritual death" do not appear in Scripture. The concept
of spiritual death is a theological construct that you and many others have
built, based upon less than explicit statements in the Bible. This in itself is
not a bad this, if in fact the Bible does set forth this doctrine in its
non-specific language. I do not believe it does that. If in Genesis God had
said, On the day you eat of it, you will surely die a spiritual death, then I
would have no recourse to argue against your concept of spiritual death. But God
did not say that; he said "On the day you eat of it, you will surely die." There
is nothing explicit about that death, no mention as to how they would die
or what kind of death that it would be, just that they would die. I believe that
rather than allowing them to die on that day, God substituted his own Son on
their behalf. This does not mean that the Son died on that day (although he is
called the Lamb slain from the foundation or beginning of the world), but it
does mean that the Son's fait was sealed on that day. Immediately after the
fall, God promised the Woman that to her a Seed would be born and that that Seed
would be bruised (in other words, die on a cross, but in resurrection change the
nature of death for ever and everyone) but that in so doing he would crush
the deceiver's head (and this is forever). Therefore, I do have a very
plausible explanation, which does not employ your extra-biblical term:
"spiritual death." Why if you are unwilling to accept the eternal Son teaching,
and this because it is not a biblical term, are you now willing to
continue to uphold the "spiritual death" doctrine, when it too is not a biblical
term? This is the hermeneutical criteria that I am questioning: a criteria of
interpretation that you will use against others but are unwilling to apply to
yourself.
Sincerely,
Bill
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