On Fri, May 9, 2008 at 4:29 AM, Matt Mahoney <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > > I claim there is no P such that P(P,y) = P(y) for all y.
(I assume you mean something like P((P,y))=P(y)). If P(s)=0 (one answer to all questions), then P((P,y))=0 and P(y)=0 for all y. -- Vladimir Nesov [EMAIL PROTECTED] ------------------------------------------- agi Archives: http://www.listbox.com/member/archive/303/=now RSS Feed: http://www.listbox.com/member/archive/rss/303/ Modify Your Subscription: http://www.listbox.com/member/?member_id=8660244&id_secret=101455710-f059c4 Powered by Listbox: http://www.listbox.com
