--- Vladimir Nesov <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> On Fri, May 9, 2008 at 4:29 AM, Matt Mahoney <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> wrote:
> >
> > I claim there is no P such that P(P,y) = P(y) for all y.
>
> (I assume you mean something like P((P,y))=P(y)).
>
> If P(s)=0 (one answer to all questions), then P((P,y))=0 and P(y)=0 for
> all y.
You're right. But we wouldn't say that the trivial language P = {0,1}*
"understands" anything. That is a problem with my formal definition of
"understanding".
I teach a C++ class. To test my student's understanding of the language,
I give them exam questions with code and ask them what it outputs.
-- Matt Mahoney, [EMAIL PROTECTED]
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agi
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