On 7/22/19 6:43 PM, Aris Merchant wrote:
No, the person has to be a party to the contract first for the
contract to specify how they can agree. Otherwise that clause is badly
broken (which might be the case...)
-Aris
I brought this up a month and a half ago [0], and G. responded with
precedent basically saying "for contract-specified agreement to work, a
person must have taken an affirmative action with intent to trigger the
agreement clause" [1].
[0]:
https://mailman.agoranomic.org/cgi-bin/mailman/private/agora-discussion/2019-June/054131.html
[1]:
https://mailman.agoranomic.org/cgi-bin/mailman/private/agora-discussion/2019-June/054132.html
--
Jason Cobb
