Micheal Espinola Jr, on 9/21/2007 8:42 AM, said the following:
> On 9/21/07, Charles Marcus <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>> Oh, ok, I see here you essentially agree that what you wrote before was
>> plain wrong...

> Not at all.  Because in court, there is one plaintiff and one
> defendant.  Anything relating to "bulk", doesnt neccessarily apply -
> because spams are typically sent to individual recipients.
> 
> For whatever reason, you didn't quote me properly:

I did the best I could, considering you top-posted...

This was you, responding to Jeroen's post:
>> They have an excellent point, and thier definition is used as a
>> reference in many court cases.  The primary factor being the defined
>> terminology of, "it's not about content, it's about consent".

> Since an email is sent to an individual recipient - where is the bulk,
> and how would you prove or refer to it in court?

Often the headers will tell the tale... also the content. But I agree it 
may be difficult to prove one way or the other, without other evidence 
besides just the one email.

But you were the one who said:

 > In legal terms, spam isn't bulk mail.  Its anything that you didn't
 > want to receive.  The precedent has already been established.

and again, this is just plain wrong. Just because I don't 'want' a 
particular email doesn't make it SPAM.

-- 

Best regards,

Charles

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