On 9/21/07, Charles Marcus <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> Oh, ok, I see here you essentially agree that what you wrote before was
> plain wrong...


Not at all.  Because in court, there is one plaintiff and one
defendant.  Anything relating to "bulk", doesnt neccessarily apply -
because spams are typically sent to individual recipients.

For whatever reason, you didn't quote me properly:

> They have an excellent point, and thier definition is used as a
> reference in many court cases.  The primary factor being the defined
> terminology of, "it's not about content, it's about consent".

Since an email is sent to an individual recipient - where is the bulk,
and how would you prove or refer to it in court?

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