I'm so confused... by absolute phase reversal, you mean multiplying the analogue waveform on both channels by -1, is that right? In other words the same thing as reversing both speaker cables?
If so, what could account for an audible difference? Can the speaker cone response be somehow non-linear and not invariant under polarity reversal? -- opaqueice ------------------------------------------------------------------------ opaqueice's Profile: http://forums.slimdevices.com/member.php?userid=4234 View this thread: http://forums.slimdevices.com/showthread.php?t=22118 _______________________________________________ audiophiles mailing list [email protected] http://lists.slimdevices.com/lists/listinfo/audiophiles
