Dear listers, In Ps 51.10 ---------> must we understand the pronoun "asher" as having been (deliberately or not) forgotten/omitted before the last word "dikita"?
Or maybe not? Namely, is there a good reason for the lacking of "asher"? Pere Porta (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain) > _______________________________________________ > b-hebrew mailing list > [email protected] > http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew > -- Pere Porta _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
