> Why אֶחָד, one, has segol and not sere? Wouldn't the sere be > more "logical" in an open syllable as it is the case here?
Good question! GEORGE ATHAS Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia) www.moore.edu.au _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
