Karl: >When people are diglossic between a language and a dialect thereof, grammar is almost always almost identical between the dialect and the “high” language. That situation does not exist between Biblical Hebrew and modern Israeli.>
While I don't think that modern Hebrew was an ancient dialect (!), this comment about the nature of diglossiai is not true. Arabic is one of the 'classic' example languages of diglossia and the grammar is "quite different". Arabic 'prefix-tense' has 'b-' prefixes, something non-existent in the high language. In colloquial Arabics, the case-endings are not pronounced, the modal endings on verbs are not pronounced, accusative adjectival plurals are used for nominatives. A diglossic situation existed between BH and Mishnaic Hebrew, which also show differences in the grammar: a dropping of the vav-ha-hippux verbs, dropping of asher new binyanim like 'nitpa`el'. new vocabulary developments, including the shifting of some verbs from one binyan to another. For Isaac: grammar says: yitpos, people say yitfos. I take that as a weakening in the phnomeic structure of the modern language. In any case, Isaac, what do you do with the second Temple development of mishaic Hebrew? People even said 'adan' for 'adam'/person. -- Randall Buth, PhD www.biblicallanguagecenter.com Biblical Language Center Learn Easily - Progress Further - Remember for Life _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
