Could someone translate for me Andersen and Forbe's syntactic analysis of 1
Chron 29:1? I specifically mean the clause that reads: "shlomo bni 'echad
bachar bo 'elohim". They read "shlomo bni" as being one appositional clause
("Solomon my son") and the rest of the phrase as a sub-clause, whereby
"echad" = subject complement; "bachar" = verb; "bo" = direct object and
"'elohim" = subject.
How can "echad" be the subject complement of "elohim" in this sentence?
And is this analysis correct?
Thanks in advance,
Phil Sumpter.
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