> … > … why is this name Ehyeh used here? … in the text it is put in the mouth of > Moses: it is > Moses who has to say to the Israelites “Ehyeh has sent me to you”! … > In my view the reason of the use of Ehyeh as a name is that Moses is > introduced here > as a prophet. It has already often been observed that some words and motifs > used in the > context have prophetic connotations, such as the word following Ehyeh, > sh-l-kh (“send”, > in connection with saying something), and the variation of the messenger > formula, “Thus > shall you say to the Children of Israel”, just preceding the name Ehyeh. A > prophet > usually speaks in the name of God by using the first person, therefore as if > God himself is > speaking. If Moses uses the name form Ehyeh in front of the people, he is > representing > God in the most eminent way that is possible and presents himself, in > combination with > “has sent me to you”, as speaking with ultimate authorization. > … On December 16 I wrote a long post about Exodus 3:14 and in particular about the second part of the verse (in this mainly repeating something of a book but not exclusively). To my big surprise I did not get any response, although I referred to previous discussions in B-Hebrew. Of course, I wondered why not. Did the transliteration sh-l-kh disturb some people (it may also indicate “throw”)? sh-l-H or sh-l-x would have been clearer but, nevertheless, SBL gives it as a possibility in connection with ‘general-purpose style’. Should I, therefore, think of another form of dissonance? Cornelis den Hertog
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