Karl,

I think that MHLK in Ecc 6:9 is quite parallel to MHLK in Nm 22:16. And
concerning NP$, if it were a Niphal, we should rather think of NP$W in Nah
3:18 as something to compare with.
But in my opinion NP$ is simply, here, a noun that depends on HLK.
Now, the core of the entire question is: What does HLK-NP$ mean in
Cohelet's mind?
I feel myself not enough ready and prepared to give a sure answer to this
question.
And that's why we find such translations of this verse as (for instance):
KJV ------  Better is the sight of the eyes than the wandering of the desire
NAS ------- What the eyes see is better than what the soul desires.
BBE -----  What the eyes see is better than the wandering of desire.

What Cohelet surely says is that MR)H (NYM *is better* than HLK NP$.
I'm afraid I cannot help you very much.

Friendly,

Pere Porta

2013/1/14 K Randolph <[email protected]>

> Pere:
>
> No I didn’t say “must be”, rather I said might be, and appears to be so.
> So unless a good argument from context proves that it isn’t, I’m leafing
> that open as a possibility.
>
> So what contextual clues are you using to say that it isn’t?
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
>
>
> On Sun, Jan 13, 2013 at 11:39 AM, Pere Porta <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>> Karl,
>>
>> after all the posts you, me and other list members have sent on the issue
>> HLK-NP$ in Ecc 6:9, are you still thinking that NP$ must be a Niphal form?
>>
>> Kind regards,
>>
>> Pere Porta
>>
>


-- 
Pere Porta
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