Are you sure, Karl, that HLK here (Ecc 6:9) is a noun and not a verb in the Qal Infinitive construct so that NP$ depends on it?
Kind regards. Pere Porta 2013/1/11 K Randolph <[email protected]> > Pere: > > Could you please give your translation of the verse to give your > understanding of the context? The context is the number one reason I > question your conclusion, so if you have a good reason based on the > context, I can agree with you. > > On Thu, Jan 10, 2013 at 10:56 PM, Pere Porta <[email protected]> wrote: > >> Dear b-hebrew listers, >> >> The word NP$, as it has been traditionally understood in Ecc 6:9, does >> not rightly fit here, in this verse? >> Karl, remark that verbs ayin-waw keep the waw in the Niphal past or >> perfect. >> Look at Is 25:10 (w'nadw$) and compare with du$ in Hos 10:11. >> > > Not always. See BWK in Joel 1:18 and as a participle in Exodus 14:3. Or > BWQ in Isaiah 19:3. Yet MWG in Exodus 15:15, Joshua 2:9, 24. > > >> I think it is unlikely NP$ in Ecc 6:9 is a Niphal. It is the noun that >> menas "soul", "person". >> > > As I said above, you need to show how it fits the context, not just the > form. > >> >> Greetings from >> >> Pere Porta >> >> Look forward to your answer. > > Karl W. Randolph. > -- Pere Porta
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