Karl, after all the posts you, me and other list members have sent on the issue HLK-NP$ in Ecc 6:9, are you still thinking that NP$ must be a Niphal form?
Kind regards, Pere Porta 2013/1/13 K Randolph <[email protected]> > Pere: > > On Fri, Jan 11, 2013 at 10:40 PM, Pere Porta <[email protected]> wrote: > >> Are you sure, Karl, that HLK here (Ecc 6:9) is a noun and not a verb in >> the Qal Infinitive construct so that NP$ depends on it? >> > > You know I read the text without points, so I have to depend on context to > tell me what sort of form each word has, whether verb, adjective, noun, > etc. So far I have found no context that defines an infinitive construct. > So I question if it even existed in Biblical Hebrew. From the points, it > existed for Masoretic Hebrew, was this something brought into Hebrew from > Aramaic? > > This is why I asked you not to analyze the verb in isolation according to > its Masoretic points, but to analyze it according to its context and defend > your claims from that. > > So what is your translation of the whole verse, not just of one word in > isolation? > >> >> Kind regards. >> >> Pere Porta >> >> Karl W. Randolph. > > -- Pere Porta
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