Thanks Stephen for your reply!

 

I would note that the substitution of κύριος can make for awkward Greek which 
may carry over to the NT:

http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/viewtopic.php?f=11&t=432&p=9056&hilit=%CE%BA%CF%85%CF%81%CE%B9%CE%BF%CF%82#p9056

 

There is also the strange statement at 1 Cor. 2:16 which may be resolved by 
viewing κύριος as a substitution for YHWH:  

τίς γὰρ ἔγνω νοῦν κυρίου, ὃς συμβιβάσει αὐτόν; ἡμεῖς δὲ νοῦν Χριστοῦ ἔχομεν.

 

Thanks again for your comments Stephen,

 

T. Scott Lawson

 

Red Bluff, CA USA
 



From: [email protected]
Date: Fri, 7 Jun 2013 17:59:04 +1000
Subject: Re: G.Gertoux and the Name...
To: [email protected]
CC: [email protected]; [email protected]


Timothy, 


I didn't mean that the LXX is irrelevant for analysing the Tetragrammaton - far 
from it!! The textual history of the Tetragrammaton in the LXX is actually a 
little more complex than that - there is manuscript evidence of different 
"solutions" for the question of how to render the Hebrew יהוה in Greek 
translations of the Hebrew Scriptures. "Translating" it as κυριος wasn't the 
only solution used in all manuscripts. Two other options tried were 
transliteration into Greek letters (very interesting for those wanting to study 
the ancient pronunciation!), or simply transcribing it in the Hebrew script.


But Rolf - if I understood him correctly - was claiming that there is 
"evidence" that the NT originally contained, not (solely?) the "translation" 
κυριος, but rather the Hebrew word itself (in Hebrew script?), in contexts 
referring to God or quotes from the OT containing יהוה. My understanding is 
that there is, in fact, no manuscript evidence for this (i.e. no NT extant 
manuscript of any shape, size or dating which contains the Hebrew name, in 
either script - every manuscript found consistently has κυριος).


I have heard logical arguments that the NT must originally have contained the 
Hebrew Name - partly appealing to the evidence of the LXX (I find these 
arguments entirely unconvincing). But that does not count as "evidence" for the 
use of the name in the NT - hence my question to Rolf. I want to know if I'm 
wrong, and there is actually any NT manuscript which would constitute such 
evidence.


I hope that answers your question.


Regards,
Stephen Shead.

On Friday, 7 June 2013, Timothy Lawson wrote:



Stephen,

   My copy of BDAG indicates that κύριος in the LXX frequently replaces the 
name Yahweh in the MT? So, why doesn't the LXX count?

Scott Lawson

Red Bluff, CA

USA


 



From: [email protected]
Date: Fri, 7 Jun 2013 14:36:29 +1000
To: [email protected]; [email protected]
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] G.Gertoux and the Name...



Hi Rolf,

>> There is even evidence in favor of including the name in the New Testament.



In which manuscript? (LXX doesn't count, of course.)



Regards,
Stephen Shead


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