Correct me if I have been misinformed but I remembered some notes I took
several years ago from Ernst Würthwein's book /The Text of the Old
Testament/. He noted that the Isaiah scroll used ?????? for ???? in
Isaiah 3:17 and conversely in 6:11 7:14; 9:7; 21:16; 28:2. He concluded
that it was obvious that Adonai was read for the Tetragrammaton when the
Isaiah scroll was made. I cannot see how anyone can make a strong
argument that early translations from the Hebrew consistently used the
divine name.
Sincerely,
Michael Abernathy
_______________________________________________
b-hebrew mailing list
[email protected]
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew