Correct me if I have been misinformed but I remembered some notes I took several years ago from Ernst Würthwein's book /The Text of the Old Testament/. He noted that the Isaiah scroll used ?????? for ???? in Isaiah 3:17 and conversely in 6:11 7:14; 9:7; 21:16; 28:2. He concluded that it was obvious that Adonai was read for the Tetragrammaton when the Isaiah scroll was made. I cannot see how anyone can make a strong argument that early translations from the Hebrew consistently used the divine name.
Sincerely,
Michael Abernathy
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