It seems to me that Stephen Shead and T. Scott Lawson may be talking past each other here.
I don't think that Stephen is attempting to make the point that the NT doesn't use κύριος instead of יהוה when quoting from the OT. He is saying that he is unaware of any evidence that the NT originally included יהוה in the text (whether in a standard square-script Hebrew or some sort of paleo-Hebrew form) that was later changed (substituted) with the Greek term κύριος. I think you're talking about two different points in the process. Stephen is talking about a situation in which one might find something like this in a Greek manuscript of the New Testament: Hebrews 7:21b ΩΜΟΣΕΝיהוהΚΑΙΟΥΜΕΤΑΜΕΛΗΘΗΣΕΤΑΙΣΥΙΕΡΕΥΣΕΙΣΤΟΝΑΙΩΝΑ Compare this to the modern critical text: Ὤμοσεν κύριος, καὶ οὐ μεταμεληθήσεται, Σὺ ἱερεὺς εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα. I'm sure you see the insertion of יהוה into the Greek text there. While we find nomina sacra (in this case, it would be ΚΣ) in the manuscripts, Stephen is asking for manuscript evidence that the New Testament (rather than the Septuagint) ever contained actual Hebrew letters amidst the Greek when it represented the Tetragrammaton. Regards, Jason Hare Thanks Stephen for your reply! > > I would note that the substitution of κύριος can make for awkward Greek > which may carry over to the NT: > > http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/viewtopic.php?f=11&t=432&p=9056&hilit=%CE%BA%CF%85%CF%81%CE%B9%CE%BF%CF%82#p9056 > > There is also the strange statement at 1 Cor. 2:16 which may be resolved > by viewing κύριος as a substitution for YHWH: > τίς γὰρ ἔγνω νοῦν κυρίου, ὃς συμβιβάσει αὐτόν; ἡμεῖς δὲ νοῦν Χριστοῦ > ἔχομεν. > > Thanks again for your comments Stephen, > > T. Scott Lawson > > Red Bluff, CA USA
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