But he was the commanding officer. There was I believe that in the Nuremberg
trials, one of the Wiermacht generals faced a similar charge because of a
massacre of partisans by Romanian allies under his command. He was still
found guilty because he was in command. Now if it can be shown that Sharon
made a direct order forbidding any assault on the refugee camps then he
would not be culpable. However, there is still the issue of his parachute
unit's massacre of those 2 Palestinian villages during the 1956 war. Then
the unit was under his direct command.

regards,

larry

--
Larry C. Lyons
ColdFusion/Web Developer
Certified Advanced ColdFusion 5 Developer
EBStor.com
8870 Rixlew Lane, Suite 204
Manassas, Virginia 20109-3795
tel:   (703) 393-7930
fax:   (703) 393-2659
Web:   http://www.ebstor.com
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email: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Chaos, panic, and disorder - my work here is done.
--

> -----Original Message-----
> From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
> Sent: Wednesday, January 30, 2002 10:48 AM
> To: CF-Community
> Subject: RE: What does this Ad mean ??
> 
> 
> His soldiers didn't do it, an allied army did. That's the issue here.
> 
> At 10:48 AM 1/30/02, you wrote:
> >> Sharon was said to be indirectly involved because his troops, 
> >> who were holding the villages did not stop it. 
> >> If you go out and slaughter people is your boss liable?
> >
> >I am NOT knowledgeable about this event, but, in general, 
> when it comes
> >to the military, don't the superiors bare responsibility for their
> >soldiers? Yes, if I kill someone my boss should not be held 
> liable - but
> >I'm a civilian.
> >
> >-rc
> >
> 
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