But it does not say that 'people, who are not convicetd criminals and pass a
background check', it just says 'people'.  Who's to say that they meant this
limitation?

On Wed, Nov 12, 2008 at 1:39 PM, Loathe <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

> Wrong, you can deny the rights of individuals after they have been found
> guilty of a felony crime.
>
> Therefore you could argue that a background check is just to ensure that
> you
> are legally entitled to own the firearm, and I have no problem with that so
> long as it's a shall issue law, meaning that if they have no felonies than
> the person MUST sell the gun to the individual.
>
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: Vivec [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > Sent: Wednesday, November 12, 2008 1:35 PM
> > To: cf-community
> > Subject: Re: questions from the gun control thread
> >
> > This means that the government cannot even make laws that
> > restrict guns from convicted criminals and murderers.
> > Government cannot require registration, licensing or even
> > background checks.
> >
> > > On Wed, Nov 12, 2008 at 1:19 PM, Loathe
> > <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> > >
> > >> What interpretation?
> > >>
> > >> I have yet to read one that makes sense in English other than the
> > >> government can create NO LAWS regarding guns, it's a right of the
> > >> people.
> >
> >
>
> 

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