Palestine is a variant of Philistine...it's the ancient Greek name for
Philistines:

In the 5th century BCE, Herodotus  wrote in Ancient Greek of a 'district of
Syria, called PalaistinĂª" (whence Palaestina, whence
Palestine).[7][13][14][15]


The use of the name "Palestine" in English became more common after the
European renaissance.[21]  The name was officially revived and used after
the fall of the Ottoman Empire (1517–1917) and applied to the territory in
this region that was placed under the British Mandate for Palestine.

So as you can see, even in English, the use of the name is from  the early
1600's (post 1630 if you want to get technical as that is when most
Historians consider the start of the Renaissance period to be).

IF a place is called Palestine, then the people would be called Palestinians
(even the Jews called them Philistines)...that's pretty simple logic.

Eric
-----Original Message-----
From: Michael Dinowitz [mailto:[email protected]] 
Sent: Thursday, March 25, 2010 9:45 AM
To: cf-community
Subject: Re: Obama power drunk on the Middle East


No it doesn't. yes it does. no it doesn't. yes it does.
History shows the Philistines before Israel. History shows the
Palestinians after mid 1900's. History does not show anyone using the
name between those times. A place, yes. A people, no.
Show me somewhere that states exactly where and when a people were
called Palestinian within that time.

On 3/25/10, Eric Roberts <[email protected]> wrote:
>
> The historical record says otherwise.
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Michael Dinowitz [mailto:[email protected]]
> Sent: Thursday, March 25, 2010 9:24 AM
> To: cf-community
> Subject: Re: Obama power drunk on the Middle East
>
>
> For the land, never for any people. The use of Palestinian to refer to
> Arabs of the area began in the mid 1900's.
>
> On 3/25/10, Eric Roberts <[email protected]> wrote:
>>
>> Palestine has been used since the Romans were there...
>
>
>
> 



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