No it doesn't. yes it does. no it doesn't. yes it does. History shows the Philistines before Israel. History shows the Palestinians after mid 1900's. History does not show anyone using the name between those times. A place, yes. A people, no. Show me somewhere that states exactly where and when a people were called Palestinian within that time.
On 3/25/10, Eric Roberts <[email protected]> wrote: > > The historical record says otherwise. > > -----Original Message----- > From: Michael Dinowitz [mailto:[email protected]] > Sent: Thursday, March 25, 2010 9:24 AM > To: cf-community > Subject: Re: Obama power drunk on the Middle East > > > For the land, never for any people. The use of Palestinian to refer to > Arabs of the area began in the mid 1900's. > > On 3/25/10, Eric Roberts <[email protected]> wrote: >> >> Palestine has been used since the Romans were there... > > > > ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~| Want to reach the ColdFusion community with something they want? Let them know on the House of Fusion mailing lists Archive: http://www.houseoffusion.com/groups/cf-community/message.cfm/messageid:313976 Subscription: http://www.houseoffusion.com/groups/cf-community/subscribe.cfm Unsubscribe: http://www.houseoffusion.com/groups/cf-community/unsubscribe.cfm
