S.Isaac Dealey wrote:

>>Say I'm a Spaniard or Hispanophone. Plurals in Spanish always end in
>>-es. Is using plurals for tables names more consistant in Spanish than
>>English? Of course not.
> 
> Assuming that statement is true, yes it does. I was talking about
> syntactical consistency, in which, if I have a rule that all names are
> appended with x, then that is a consistent syntactical rule. If I then
> amend my rule to say that "all names are appended with x -- except for
> names we don't feel like appending with x" (which is how the rules for
> plurals in English work) then the syntax rule is inconsistent.

That appears overly rigid to me. The only reason why there's
"inconsistency" in English plurals is phonological. -s and -es are both
the same morpheme.

If you were to ask a linguist if there was inconsistency here, they'd
definitely say "no".

> There is no way of automating the rule -- it requires manual entry of a
> "dictionary" to explain what names are random exceptions to the rule
> -- and that's really the whole point -- plurals in english are
> arbitrarily random. A consistently applied syntax rule may be
> abritrary but is not random.

It's rather simple, and doesn't require a special rule, at least not for 
native germanic words (and a good deal of the romance ones and others in
the language, spare the odd irregular ones like "oxen", "children", and
the strong nouns). If a world ends in a sibilant (s, z, sh, x [really
"ks"], ch [really "tsh"]); the soft "g" is also a sibilant, but owing to
other complications doesn't really figure in this), -es is used. If it
ends in -y, -ies is used. Otherwise -s. It's quite simple.

>>Or let's take Gaelic: nouns in Gaelic come in various declensions, and
>>the plural of a word varies depending on its declension (and various
>>complex phonological considerations: oh wait! that's why English has
>>two plural endings!).
> 
> What english do you speak? I can think of several... s, es, i, a --

Let's take them: -s and -es are really the same morpheme, -i and -a
are latinate ones that are barely used in modern English. Not only that,
but many of those plurals have morphed into collective nouns (data being
one such).

> and that's not even including the cases in which the plural of a word
> has almost nothing to do with the word in question (person/people,

You'll notice that "person" and "people" are not related. You'll also
notice that "people" is a collective noun, not a plural. The plural of
person is, wait for it, "persons".

> goose/geese, mouse/mice).

Irregular nouns. Give us a break!

>>It could be -anna, -�, -e, -a, the noun could undergo
>>palatalisation of the final consonant, &c. Does this make  using
>>pluralisation more consistant in English than Gaelic? Nope.
> 
> Yep.

This goidelophone wishes to disagree.

>>But when it comes down to it, this is all convention. I pluralise
>>because bits of SQL like "SELECT ... FROM products ...",  "INSERT INTO
>>products ...", "UPDATE products ...", and "DELETE FROM products ..."
>>read better than me because these work on sets of entities as opposed
>>to singular entities. When it comes down to it, how it "sounds" is
>>really the only way of justifying it.
> 
> It's not the only reason, but it's the reason most commonly
> understood. (Re: previous post regarding automation of table names).

And we write code for humans to understand, not computers.

> Really if you want to run the length of the argument then you could
> just as easily name your classes plural as well, and technically a
> class does describe a collection of objects (their type), though when
> we write code we don't generally think of a class that way, we think
> of it as being singular even though we then instantiate objects to
> create what are actually singular entities of type.

A class is not a collection of objects. A class is is a description of a
type of object. Table != class. That's a red herring.

OTOH, I pluralise the names of real collections of object, such as 
arrays, where it makes sense.

K.

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