>>In fact it looks like there's more chances that first world
>>workers' buying power 
>>would drop if there was a worldwide overthrow of capitalism.
>
>What can this statement even mean?

I was answering to some dismissive speculation of Mac. So I had to enter 
speculative-mode... I'll try to make it clearer: 
The buying power of workers in a first world country is more likely to drop after 
a global overthrow of capitalism than after a local overthrow of capitalism. Is 
that clear enough? 
The reason is that a global overthrow of capitalism would probably diminish 
the exploitation of third world countries who currently sell their products cheap 
on the world markets. If capitalism was overthrown in one country only, this 
probably wouldn't happen. 
If that still isn't clear to you, I can try in French.


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