Hi Tom,
Your post has inspired a thought for me
that I have been struggling for years to generate! Where is Intensionality
instantiated in Arithmetic Realism, or any form of Platonism? To re-phrase in
folk-speak: How is "to whom-ness" present in a number?
I find in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intension the
idea that "refers to the set of all possible things
which a word could describe.", thus intensionality for a number would be the set
(???) of all possible other numbers that it could encode, which has a nice
algorithmic flavor; but let's go to extensionality: "extension (or denotation) refers to the set of all
actual things which the word actually
describes".
How do numbers *distinguish* (if I am
permitted to use that word) between *possibility* and
*actuality*? Is the "bush" what Bruno is "beating
around"?
Onward!
Stephen
----- Original Message -----
From: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Cc: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Monday, April 03, 2006 5:20 PM
Subject: Re: The Riemann Zeta Pythagorean
TOE
Quentin:
I don't know from your wink at the end whether you are half-serious or
not.
But just in case (and Bruno can do better than I can on this), I think
I can correctly appeal to Peano's distinction between mathematical and
linguistic paradox. The meaning of the symbols is defined at a higher
level than the encoding itself. Your statement turns on the word
"chosen", which is a verb. This goes back to my other post in this
thread that, in order to keep from going into an infinite regress of
meaninglessness, defining meaning ultimately requires a person.
Tom
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