On 9/26/2012 2:53 PM, Jason Resch wrote:


On Wed, Sep 26, 2012 at 2:33 PM, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net <mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> wrote:

    On 9/26/2012 12:11 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



        On Sep 26, 2012, at 12:29 PM, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net
        <mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> wrote:

            On 9/25/2012 9:51 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



                On Sep 25, 2012, at 11:05 PM, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net
                <mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> wrote:

                    On 9/25/2012 8:54 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



                        On Sep 25, 2012, at 10:27 PM, meekerdb 
<meeke...@verizon.net
                        <mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> wrote:

                            On 9/25/2012 4:07 PM, Jason Resch wrote:

                                Yes. If we cannot prove that their existence is
                                self-contradictory


                            Propositions can be self contradictory, but how can
                            existence of something be self-contradictory?

                            Brent


                        Brent, it was roger, not I, who wrote the above.  But 
in any
                        case I interpreted his statement to mean if some 
theoretical
                        object is found to have contradictory properties, then 
it does
                        not exist.


                    Sorry.


                No worries.

                    So you mean if some mathematical object implies a 
contradiction it
                    doesn't exist, e.g. the largest prime number. But then of 
course the
                    proof of contradiction is relative to the axioms and rules 
of inference.


                Well there is always some theory we have to assume, some model 
we
                operate under.  This is needed just to communicate or to think.

                The contradiction proof is relevant to some theory, but so is 
the
                existence proof.  You can't even define an object without using 
some
                agreed upon theory.


            Sure you can.  You point and say, "That!"  That's how you learned 
the
            meaning of words, by abstracting from a lot of instances of your 
mother
            pointing and saying, "That."

            Brent



        There is still an implicitly assumed model that the two people are 
operating
        under (if they agree on what is meant by the chair they see).

        Or they may use different models and define the chair differently.  For 
example,
        a solipist believes the chair is only his idea, a physicalist thinks it 
is a
        collection of primitive matter, a computationalist a dream of numbers.

        Then while they might all agree on the existence of something, that 
thing is
        different for each person because they are defining it under different 
models.


    But if they are different then what sense does it make to say there is a
    contradiction in *the* model and hence something doesn't exist.


It means a certain object (which is defined in a model) does not exist in that model. A model in one object is not the same as another object in a different model, even if they might have the same name, symbol, or appearance. "2 in a finite field", is a different thing from "2 in the natural numbers". The "chair in the solipist model" is different from the "chair in the materialist model". A chair made out of primitively real matter is non-existent in the solipist model. I don't see how you can escape having to work within a model when you make assertions, like X exists, or Y does not exist.

I don't try to escape that.

What is X or Y outside of the model from which they are defined and exist 
within?

The whole point of having a model is that X and Y refer to something outside the model. The model is a model *of* reality, not reality itself. So when you prove "X and ~X" in the model you may have proved X doesn't exist or you may have shown your model doesn't correspond to reality.

Brent



Jason

     That's why it makes no sense to talk about a contradiction disproving the 
existence
    of something you can define ostensively.  It is only in the Platonia of 
statements
    that you can derive contradictions from axioms and rules of inference.  If 
you can
    point to the thing whose non-existence is proven, then it just means you've 
made an
    error in translating between reality and Platonia.

    Brent


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