No.

What means "truth value" of something? in which range of phenomena? in all
phenomena applicable? how you can test all phenomena applicable to a
theory? you can't. The only thing that you can do is to test a particular
prediction that the theory predict that may never happen (Popperian
falsability)


Feyerabend demosntrated  that not even that is possible, or at least
unique, since the perceptions or "facts" must be interpreted according with
the theory. there is no fact that is theory-free. A fact pressuposes a
theory. So a theory and their perceptions are a closed set, that may be
autocoherent.

So there may be different theories for the same phenomena, each one with
their interpreted facts, that may have some kind of morphism between them.
That is evidently and pefectly exemplified now in some dualities of string
theories, or between newtonian and relativistic mechanics, or in a certain
way, between heliocentrism and  geocentrisme.  where  agreeement between
phenomena and  ptolemaic theory, in the case of heliocentrism, is
maintained at the cost of a more complicated theory.

Then, to escape the Feyerabend trap, there is necessary additional
criteria, such is the economy of axioms or the Occam Razor as criteria for
theory acceptance. Fortunately it works, because it seems that we live in a
simple, mathematical universe, which is amazing per se.

About opinions:

But all that one may know, even the facts, are subjective perceptions.

But opinions are about internal subjective perceptions,

That there are no scientific theory about some subjective perceptions (some
internal ones) does not say that these subjective perceptions can never be
objects of scientific study. Simply it means that at this historical moment
there is no methods (or there is resistance to them, since the rejection of
common sense) that would make them testable and scientific.



2013/3/19 Craig Weinberg <whatsons...@gmail.com>

>
>
> On Friday, March 8, 2013 11:11:38 PM UTC-5, Stephen Paul King wrote:
>>
>>  On 3/8/2013 11:08 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:
>>
>> Hi,
>>
>>     Is the following a sound claim?
>>
>>
>> "...scientifically meaningful propositions are questions about the past,
>> the present, the future, or the eternal laws that:
>>
>>    - might in principle be both false and true
>>    - admit a method, at least in principle, to evaluate their truth
>>    values."
>>
>> --
>>
>>
>>     Is the following a sound claim?
>>
>> "...examples of propositions that don't belong to science because one of
>> the disqualifying conditions below holds:
>>
>>    - they're purely mathematical in character so they require no
>>    empirical input at all
>>    - they're statements about fictional objects such as Hamlet that
>>    can't be decided from the only available data, in this case the text of
>>    Hamlet (there's no "real Hamlet" offering "additional data")
>>    - they depend on subjective opinions and preferences"
>>
>> --
>>
>>
> They sound ok to me. Subjective opinions should not be included when the
> topic of consideration is subjectivity itself, but they should be
> understood as expressions of subjective phenomena.
>
> Craig
>
>
>> Onward!
>>
>> Stephen
>>
>> PS, I am quoting Sean Carroll <http://preposterousuniverse.com/>
>>
>>   --
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-- 
Alberto.

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