On 1/16/2014 11:00 AM, LizR wrote:
On 17 January 2014 07:56, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net <mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>>
On 1/16/2014 1:48 AM, LizR wrote:
On 16 January 2014 20:00, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net
On 1/15/2014 7:08 PM, LizR wrote:
On 16 January 2014 14:11, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net
You can do that (in fact it may have been done). You have two
with polarizers and a detector at which you post-select only those
particles that arrive and form a singlet. Then you will find that
correlation counts for that subset violates Bell's inequality for
polarizer settings of 30, 60, 120deg.
I assume that means Price's (and Bell's) assumption that violations of
inequality can be explained locally and realistically with time
?? Why do you conclude that? It's the time-reverse of the EPR that
Because as I (perhaps mis-) understand it, Price claims that we need to
past AND future boundary conditions into account to explain EPR with time
If we can explain it with only a forward in time or backward in time
then we aren't using both.
But in the reverse EPR we are in effect using both past and future boundary
conditions. At the emitters we set the polarizers - that's the past
condition. At the single detector we post-select only those incoming pairs
form a net-zero spin; so that's a future boundary condition.
I must admit I thought you were saying we could do it using ONLY the future boundary
conditions. If you use both then you should logically use both in the forwards case,
too, so I assume Price's explanation still stands.
You do use both in the forward case, but people kind of slide over the initial condition
which is that you produce two particles with net-zero spin. It might seem more symmetric
if we did the forward case by creating a lot of pairs and only selecting the net spin-zero
pairs to go to the EPR detectors.
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